CSIR-Lifesciences-Paper1 Part B

90. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of a rare disorder.
Based on the above pedigree, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
1. Autosomal dominant
2. X-linked recessive
3. X-linked dominant
4. Y-linked dominant

91. Which of the following pair of relatives will have the highest genetic correlation?
1. First double cousins
2. Half siblings
3. Brothers
4. Brother-sister

93. You are provided with an E. coli strain auxotrophic for the amino acids Trp, Leu
and Val. To select for double revertants in Trp and Leu, which amino acid(s)
would you include in the growth medium?
1. Trp
2. Leu
3. Val
4. Trp, Leu, Val

94. UAG and UAA are both nonsense codons. What kind of single point mutation
would cause reversion of UAG to a meaningful codon?
1. Transition
2. Transversion
3. Frameshift
4. Inversion

95. E. coli cells were simultaneously infected by two rII bacteriophage mutants.
From the progeny obtained after lysis of the E. coli cells it was observed that
some of the bacteriophages showed a wild type phenotype. These were
obtained at extremely low frequency. This is due to
1. complementation of the two mutations.
2. recombination between the two mutant chromosomes.
3. transposition of the mutation.
4. incomplete penetrance.

96. Which of the following hormones stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and the
secretion of K+ in the kidney?
1. Vasopressin
2. Thyroxine
3. Prolactin
4. Aldosterone

97. The correct sequence in vertebrate embryonic development is
1. gastrocoel – blastocoel – notochord – neural crest.
2. blastocoel – gastrocoel – neural crest – notochord.
3. gastrocoel – blastocoel – neural crest – notochord.
4. blastocoel – neural crest – gastrocoel – notochord.

98. A person has a vision problem caused by the image of an object at infinity getting
focused in front of retina. The error can be corrected by the use of
1. biconvex lens.
2. cylindrical lens.
3. plano convex lens.
4. biconcave lens.

99. During electrical stimulation-induced depolarization of neuron, voltage-gated
1. Na+ channels will close.
2. K+ channels will close.
3. Cl− channels will open.
4. Na+ channels will open.

100. The primary function of diaphragm is to
1. control blood pressure.
2. regulate respiration.
3. support the heart.
4. keep the rib cage dilated.

101. In nephron, the main role of deamination is to
1. reduce urine pH.
2. reduce water loss.
3. release urea.
4. release uric acid.

102. During inspiration, the air that we breathe moves through different regions of the
associated organs in the sequence of
1. larynx > nasopharynx > trachea > glottis.
2. nasopharynx > glottis > larynx > trachea.
3. glottis > nasopharynx > larynx > trachea.
4. larynx > glottis > nasopharynx > trachea.

103. Knee jerk reaction is an example of what type of reflex?
1. Monosynaptic
2. Multisynaptic
3. Conditioned
4. Conscious

104. Which of the following processes is a major problem in interpreting molecular
phylogeny?
1. Horizontal transfer of genes
2. Gene duplication
3. Synonymous mutations
4. Non-synonymous mutations

105. In a tissue, a cell that markedly differs in form, size and content from other cells
of the same tissue is called
1. intermediary cell.
2. isotropic cell.
3. idioblast cell.
4. myrosin cell.

106. Among the extant reptiles which group is phylogenetically closely related to
Aves?
1. Turtles
2. Lizards
3. Snakes
4. Crocodiles

107. The group of organisms that is now separated from the other groups of fungi
based on their motile spores and cellulose-rich cell wall is
1. Myxomycetes.
2. Zygomycetes.
3. Deuteromycetes.
4. Oomycetes.

108. Some floristic elements common to both India and China are in the genus
1. Ginkgo.
2. Rhododendron.
3. Poeciloneuron.
4. Erinocarpus.

109. The difference between Indian and African wild herbivore fauna is that there are
no
1. antelopes in India.
2. deer in Africa.
3. odd-toed animals in India.
4. even-toed hoofed animals in Africa.

110. Which of the following bird species is endangered?
1. Hill myna
2. Great Indian bustard
3. Crow-pheasant
4. Grey hornbill

111. In spite of the prevalence of herbivory, the earth continues to be largely green
because
1. the number of herbivore species is low.
2. herbivores are very inefficient feeders.
3. herbivore numbers are kept low by their predators.
4. herbivory promotes plant growth.

113. Which of the following reproductive strategies is characteristic of marine
invertebrates?
1. Long generation time, small clutch size
2. Short generation time, small clutch size
3. Long generation time, large clutch size
4. Short generation time, large clutch size

114. Bergmann’s Rule refers to a general tendency of mammals to be
1. larger in size in colder areas of their distribution.
2. smaller in size in areas of their distribution.
3. darker-pigmented in warmer areas of their distribution.
4. lighter-pigmented in warmer areas of their distribution.

115. When removal of a species from an ecosystem affects persistence of many other
species and the impact of that species removal is disproportionate to its
abundance, the species is known as
1 indicator species.
2. keystone species.
3. flagship species.
4. umbrella species.

116. Biomass turnover time is the ratio between biomass and productivity of an
ecosystem. Which of the following forests should have highest biomass turnover
time?
1. Tropical dry forests
2. Tropical wet forests
3. Temperate deciduous forests
4. Boreal forests

117. Conversion of nitrite to nitrate in soil is done by the bacteria of genus
1. Azotobacter.
2. Nitrosomonas.
3. Nitrobacter.
4. Pseudomonas.

118. In a population with two alleles ‘a’ and ‘b’ of a genotype in a ratio of 0.2 and 0.8
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, how many individuals in a sample of 300 can be
expected to be homozygous for allele ‘a’?
1. 192
2. 12
3. 64
4. 96

119. Defective alleles are eliminated rapidly from a population if they are
1. recessive.
2. dominant.
3. codominant.
4. in multiple copies.

120. The correct expression of Hamilton rule for the evaluation of altruism is [C = the
cost of a behavioral act to the actor, b = the benefit of that act to a beneficiary, and
r = the genetic relatedness between the actor and the beneficiary]
1. c < b⋅r
2. c < b
3. c⋅r < b
4. r < b⋅c
121. The evolutionary basis of sexual dimorphism is
1. differential investment in offspring.
2. difference in aggression.
3. difference in sex chromosomes.
4. difference in autosomes.

122. The evolutionary appearance of the first mammals was
1. after the extinction of dinosaurs and before the appearance of birds.
2. before the extinction of dinosaurs and after the appearance of birds.
3. before the extinction of dinosaurs and before the appearance of birds.
4. after the extinction of dinosaurs and after the appearance of birds.

123. Both the Luria-Delbruck experiment and the Lederberg and Lederberg experiment
demonstrate
1. pre-selection mutations.
2. post-selection mutations.
3. directed mutations.
4. adaptive mutations.

124. Vampire bats regurgitate food in order to feed a starving member of their group.
This is an example of
1. group selection.
2. reciprocal altruism.
3. selfish behavior.
4. K-selection.

125. The first appearance of amphibians on earth was during the period
1. Silurian.
2. Carboniferous.
3. Triassic.
4. Jurassic.

126. In a transgenic mouse experiment a founder male produces 100 pups and only 20
of these are transgenic. This result leads to the conclusion that the
1. founder transgenic animal is chimaeric.
2. founder animal is mosaic.
3. transgene is integrated on Y–chromosome.
4. transgene is integrated on X–chromosome.

127. An inbred mouse is cloned using another mouse strain as an egg donor. The
genetic relationship between the original inbred mouse and its clone will be
1. 100%.
2. 99–100%.
3. 95–99%.
4/ 90–95%.

128. Which of the following elements can be used to immobilize a reduced protein?
1. Calcium
2. Potassium
3. Gold
4. Sodium

129. D-amino acids
1. cannot be produced by fermentation.
2. can be produced by E. coli.
3. can be produced by yeast.
4. can be produced by microbes provided with chiral precursors of D-amino
acids.

130. Which of the following viruses is used for biocontrol of insect pests of plants?
1. Cauliflower mosaic virus
2. Cucumber mosaic virus
3. Rice tungro virus
4. Nuclear polyhedrosis virus

131. What ratio do you expect for codominant loci in F2 populations?
1. 1:1
2. 3:1
3. 1:2:1
4. 9:3:3:1

132. The copy number of a transgene in plants can be deciphered by
1. Southern blotting.
2. northern blotting.
3. south western blotting.
4. far western blotting.

133. It is hypothesized that the mean (μ) longevity of a Drosophila strain is 18 days,
with a variance (σ) of 3 days. What values of longevity in a sampled population
will lead to rejection of the null hypothesis at 95% confidence level?
1. Only values less than 15.
2. Values less than 15 and more than 18
3. Only values more than 21
4. Values less than 12 and more than 24

134. Normalized Differential Vegetation Index (NDVI) in remote sensing refers to the
following spectral band derivation:
1. Near IR – Red
2. Red / Near Red
3. (Near IR – Red) / (Near IR + Red)
4. (Near IR – Red) / Red

135. Function of a monochromator in a spectrophotometer is
1. focusing a straight beam of light.
2. dividing a light beam into its component wavelengths.
3. selecting a desired wavelength.
4. creating a light source.

136. Which of the following methods is the most appropriate for estimating the
population density of burrowing animals?
1. Quadrat sampling
2. Line transect sampling
3. Tag-recapture method
4. Nearest neighbour distance method

137. A radioactive sample was counted in a scintillation counter and a value of 194930
cpm was obtained. The counting efficiency was found to be 95.7%. What is the
actual amount of radioactivity present in the sample?
1. 181171 dpm
2. 190411 dpm
3. 203600 dpm
4. 211326 dpm

138. Which one of the following treatments does NOT enhance the response of a film
to radioisotopes in autoradiography?
1. Staining the gel with Coomassie blue before drying
2. Use of intensifying screens
3. Exposure at low temperature
4. Preflashing the film with a light flash

139. What is the length of oligonucleotide required to give consistent specific
hybridization signal in a microarray?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 20

140. A protein is poorly expressed in a diseased tissue. To determine whether the
defect is at the level of transcription or translation, which of the following
blotting methods would you use?
1. Southern
2. Southern and northern
3. Northern and western
4. Western

JNU Sample Question - PART 6

Q) A perfect flower must have
1. Pistils
2. Stamen
3. Sepals and petals
4. 1 and 2
5. Only sepals

Q) Vasular cambium forms
1. Primary xylem and phloem
2. Secondary vasular tissues
3. Primary roots
4. Both 1 and 3
5. None of the above

Q) The water potential of pure water is
1. Zero
2. Greater than zero
3. Less than zero
4. Can be zero but can never be less than zero
5. None of the above

Q) Mature xylem has the following organells except
1. Nucleus
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplasts
4. Ribosomses
5. None of the above

Q) Sieve tube elements do not have
1. Living cells
2. Nucleus
3. Ribosomes
4.Both 2 and 3
5. None of the above

Q) Collenchyma typically contains
1. Pectin
2. Lignin
3. Cellulose
4. All but not 2
5. All but not 1

Q) Photosynthetically activa chloroplasts are present in
1. All epidermal cells
2. Leaf epidermal cells
3. Guard cells
4. Root epidermal cells
5. None of the above

Q) A cell can expand when the water potentuial in its vacoule is
1. Lower than outside
2. Higher than outside
3. Equal to outside
4. None of the above

Q) Pfr form of phytochrome is
1. Physiologically inactive
2. Formed on exposure to red light
3. Formed on exposure to far-red light
4. Formed only in the seeds
5. None of the above

Q) Long dau plants can be encouraged to flower by interuupting
1. The days with periods of darkness
2, The nights with far-red light
3. The nights with red light
4. The nights with Blue light
5. None of the above

JNU Sample Questions- PART 5

Q) The plants are thought to be evolved from
1. Charophyte
2. Bryophyte
3. Lymnophyte
4. Pterophyte
5. None of the above

Q) The dominant stage in the life cycle of Bryophyte is
1. Sporophyte
2. Gamatophyte
3. Both
4. Partial gamatophyte
5. None of the above

Q) Pterophyte contains
1. Seedless plants
2. Non-vasular plants
3. Vascular seed plants
4. Eudicot plants
5. None of the above

Q) Which of the following is a dead cell at maturity
1. Guard cells
2. Sieve elements
3 .Tracheids
4. Meristems
5. Both 2 and 4

Q) Inside the ovary the egg is guarded by
1. Egg shell
2. Synergids
3. Micropyle
4. Cotyledons
5. None of the above

Q) Eudicots are
1. True monocots
2. True dicots
3. Neither monocot nor dicot
4. True dicots
5. Ancestor of monocots

Q) Onion can be considered as
1. Modifies root
2. Modified stem
3. Modified leaves
4. Normal stem
5. None of the above

Q) Stolons can be seen in
1. Strawberry
2. Gymnosperms
3. Apples
4. Sunflower
5. All of the above

Q) Pneumatophores can be seen in
1. Woody trees
2. Mangrooves
3. Evergreen trees
4. DIcots
5. All the above

Q) The sperm nuclei fuses with
1. Egg and synergids
2. Egg only
3. Egg and central nuclei
4. Central nuclei only
5. None of the above

Q) After fertilization the ovule developes in to
1. Fruite
2. Endosperm
3. Flower
4. Seed
5. Root cap

Q) The gynoecium is a collective name for
1. Anthers
2. Stames
3. Pistils
4. Carpels
5. None of the above

Q) The ploidy level of endosperm is
1. 1n
2. 2n
3. 3n
4. 4n
5. None of the above

Q) Monocots have
1. Orderd vascular tissues
2. One - pored pollen
3. Net like veins
4. Free swinmming sperms
5. All of the above

JNU Sample Qusetions Part 4

Q) The essential amino acid(s) are/is
1. Glycine
2. Valine
3. Methionine
4. 1 and 3
6. 2 and 3

Q) Which one of the following statement is incorrect:
1. The ration of four different nucleotides vary from one species to another.
2. The base composition vary with age, nutritional factor or change in environment condition
3. Irrespective of source of DNA, the base compostion of A is equal to T and G to C
4. The DNA extracted from same tissues of different species have same base composition
5. None of the above

Q) The flowers which have a single plane of division to obtain mirrior image halves are called
1. Pelorial flowers
2. Actinomorphic flowers
3. Zygomorphic flowers
4. Heteromorphic flowers
5. None of these

Q) A person ingested methylated spirit.The treatment he receives normally exploites which of the following types of enzymatic reactions
1. Non competitive inhibition
2. Allosteric inhibition
3. Competitive inhibition
4. Allsoteric enhancement
5. Both 3 and 4

Q) TaqMan Probe is used for
1. RT-PCR
2. PCR
3. In vitro hybridization
4. qRT-PCR
5 DIdeoxy chain termination reaction

Q) In amino acid sequencing using ninhydrin, the detection is of
1. Beta amino acid
2. Alpha amino acid
3. N terminal amino acid
4. C terminal amino acid
5. None of the above

Q) Find the mismatched pair
1. Carboxypeptidase A - N-Terminal
2. Trypsin - C terminal
3. Cyanoge Bromide - Recognize Methionine
4. Chymotripsin - Phenyl alanine
5. None of the above

Q) Sanger's Reagent is
1. 1 fluro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
2. 2,4-dichloroaceticacid
3. Sidenafil citrate
4. Phenyl isothiocyanate

Q) Edman degradation detect
1. C terminal amino acid
2. N terminal amino acid
3. Amino acid that has aromatic side chains
4. Aliphatic amino acids
5. None of the above